What are the characteristics of moss plants? What is the difference between the ground-air environment and the water.
Basic information that you need to know when writing an essay in task C1.
Basic information
Plan
1. Introduction (2-3 sentences leading to the topic of the reviewed text).
2. The problem raised in the text.
3. Comment.
4. Author's position.
5. Student's position on the problem raised in the text (agreement, disagreement, partial disagreement, dual or conflicting assessment).
6. Arguments confirming or refuting the author's position (the student gives at least two arguments based on his life and (or) reading experience).
7. Conclusion (1-2 sentences should complete the essay, link it with the original text).
Speech samples
How to start an essay
You can start:
For example:
K. G. Paustovsky (M. M. Prishvin) is one of the amazing masters of the artistic word, his works instill in us a reverent attitude towards nature, the ability to see beauty in the world around us. So the text I read takes me to
or
But in this text, the author plays the role of a philosopher, unexpected for me, and reflects on the “mirror” connection between man and nature.
2) from a long row homogeneous members sentences with a generalizing word (abstract nouns are most often used as homogeneous members, denoting concepts related to the topic of the text).
For example:
Faith, hope, love (fidelity, devotion, friendship, mutual assistance, mercy, etc.) - without these moral categories it is impossible to imagine the spiritual life of a person. A well-known modern publicist in his article shares with readers his reflections on the fact that ...
3) from two to three rhetorical questions leading to the topic or main idea text (in questions it is appropriate to use antonyms).
For example:
In our age of contradictions and social upheavals, how can one not forget how to distinguish the true from the false? How to understand what has a beneficial effect on the soul, and what corrupts, destroys it? How to distinguish culture from "pseudo-culture"? He reflects on these complex philosophical problems in his article ...
For example:
I have often thought that the most important life concepts it is very difficult to explain in words. Love, faith, happiness - it is impossible to live without these moral categories, and it is not so easy to give a “definition” to them. In this text, the author proposes to reflect on the role of ...
Comments
The text says (narrates, describes, the author reflects, argues, etc.) about ...
- In a short article, the author touches on several important issues: ...
- In the text under review, one can note a high “density of thought”: the author speaks not only about ..., but also about .... The author achieves such a semantic capacity with the help of ....
- The author does not formulate the main idea of his article, but by the whole course of reasoning he leads us to the conclusion: ....
- After reading the text, I came to a conclusion (I understood, I came to a conclusion, I understood the position of the author).
- The content of the text is much broader than its topic. Speaking about ..., the author means ...
For example:
a) The author comes to an interesting, unexpected conclusion: "masterpieces exist not only in art, but also in nature."
b) S. Soloveichik shares with readers his reflections that faith is “the most important function of the soul”. The author unobtrusively, without excessive edification proves that without this “transmission mechanism” between the mind and heart, the soul of a person will “dry up”.
Speech samples for expressing one's own opinion about what has been read
Key phrases to the text on a topical, topical topic:
I have thought about this more than once, and therefore the topic of the text is close and understandable to me.
Despite the fact that I had thought a lot about ... before, the author’s thought about ... seemed interesting and unexpected to me.
The theme of the text is close and understandable to me, because I myself experienced similar feelings more than once (I found myself in such a situation).
The problem ... cannot but excite my contemporaries. A well-known publicist ... in his article talks about ...
Key phrases for popular science text:
In the lessons ... I studied in the section ..., so the problem that the author of the text is talking about is familiar to me (understandable).
The author speaks about complex scientific concepts in an accessible way, using general scientific terms (examples).
To make his point of view more convincing, the author quotes (refers to the opinion) of such well-known ... as ...
Although the text at first seemed difficult to me, but after reading it a second time, I realized that ...
Frankly, I had never read about ..., so the text ... interested me, I learned a lot about ...
Key phrases to the text on a topic far from the interests of the student:
After reading the text (of the author), I caught myself thinking that I had never thought about ...
Interesting and unexpected seemed to me the author's idea about ...
My poor life experience does not allow me to express a clear position on this issue. But, after reading the text, I thought that ... (I found out that)
I have never thought about this problem before, and I'm afraid my position will seem vague.
Therefore, I have to agree with the author, who managed to talk about ...
Speech samples for completing an essay on a given text
You need to finish the essay with a phrase that sums up everything that has been said and logically connects creative work student reading the text.
Here are some successful, in our opinion, final phrases from the essays of graduates.
1) The text I read by V. Astafiev helped me to establish myself in the opinion that friendship, combined with the love and care of loved ones, forms a person’s personality. In addition, the author "infected" me with his optimism: I also want to believe that good people in life more than evil.
2) After reading the article, I realized how fragile this museum world is, its "exhibits" are short-lived, which are often subjected to a "consumer" attitude. So let's make sure that these age-old values retain their significance for future generations.
3) The article by S. Soloveichik touched me to the core, prompted me to think that I am grateful to my parents for my upbringing: they instilled in me faith in the best, and I hope that this “function of the soul” will help me in life.
Composition of the essay
The text should be at least 5 paragraphs:
Introduction;
problem;
analysis of the source text based on the author's position;
expression and argumentation of one's own position;
conclusion - conclusions.
Useful Reminders
Reminder 1. The main problem
The main problem is the one that has become the object of the author's thoughts, over which he mainly reflects; to which he repeatedly returns, on which the author's position is clearly stated.
In the text
being investigated
analyzed
rises
considered
affected
problem (of what? - R.p.)
moral choice
ecology
good and evil, etc.
staged
outlined
considered
put forward
affected
raised
formulated
explored
analyzed
Memo 2. Estimated words
Without evaluative words to help convey the impression of the read, the position of the examinee is not considered formulated!
enjoyed reading...
can't be indifferent...
unfortunately, ...
Much to my surprise, I found out that...
the author's conviction in the correctness of the assessments given by him cannot but arouse the sympathy of the reader
Sharing the indignation of the author, I want to say that ...
the originality of the author's solution to this problem is admirable
revolts (pleases, delights, upsets, etc.) that ...
interesting is how the author ... etc.
Memo 3. Arguments
The arguments are also:
links to TV, radio, movies
names of historical figures
references to recognized authorities and their works
eyewitness accounts
event names
quotes
dates
various facts (place, circumstances, participants in events)
own observations and conclusions
provisions of official documents
various public laws
Nature laws
folk wisdom (proverbs, sayings, signs, etc.)
statistical data
examples from fiction, popular science, historical literature
examples from the lives of others
1. Clearly, directly, directly
in the title of the text
in separate sentences of the text
through a series of arguments
2. Through a modal text plan
rhetorical questions
rhetorical exclamations
word order
lexical repetitions
evaluative vocabulary
modal words and particles
row introductory words, phrases, sentences
Language clichés for the presentation of the author's position:
The author believes that...
The author claims that...
The author is convinced that ... and such confidence is not unfounded.
It is important for the author to convince the reader that...
It is undeniable that the author...
The purpose of the author is to make the reader pay attention to ...
The author's task is to convince readers that ...
The author defines his attitude to the problem as follows:
The author leads the reader to the idea that ...
The author seeks to convey to the reader the idea that ...
Solving the problem, the author comes to the following conclusion: ...
"..." - in these words, in my opinion, the idea of the text is reflected.
"..." - in this statement (indicate the author) the idea of the text is reflected.
"..." - this statement accurately reflects the position of the author.
... - this is the main idea (thought) of the text.
"..." - this idea reflects the author's position.
... - these linguistic means allowed the author to figuratively, vividly express his position.
... - in this sentence there is a direct author's assessment ...
... - all this allowed the author to express the idea that ...
... - this is what the author thinks about the problem he raised.
... - this is the result of the author's thoughts on the main problem.
The position of the author is clear: ...
Memo 5. Comments
The comment should not include:
retelling of the original text or any part of it
reasoning about all the problems of the text
comments about the actions of the heroes of the text
general reasoning about the text (after all, the examinee needs to comment on one of the problems!)
Memo 6. Ethical error
An ethical error is associated with manifestations of verbal aggression, both externally expressed and hidden.
Speech aggression is rude, offensive, offensive communication; verbal expression of negative emotions, feelings or intentions in an unacceptable way speech situation form: insult, threat, rude demand, accusation, mockery, use of swear words, vulgarism, jargon, slang.
Sample essay-reasoning on the text read
Text
(1) Polya's inflamed state, and most importantly, her confused, ambiguous speech - everything suggested the worst guesses, much worse than even the captivity of Rodion or his mortal wound.
(2) “No, it’s completely different here,” Polya shuddered and, turning to the wall, took out a crumpled, read out triangle from under the pillow.
(3) Subsequently, Varya was ashamed of her initial assumptions. (4) Although rare transit trains did not stop in Moscow, the stations were nearby, and Rodion knew Pauline's address. (5) Of course, the command might not have allowed the soldier to leave the echelon for the Annunciation dead end, then why didn’t he at least drop postcards of his own, beloved, on his way to the active army? ..
(6) So, this was his first front-line news with more than a two-week delay. (7) In any case, it will now become clear with what thoughts he went to war. (8) Varya impatiently unfolded the sheet, all pierced with a pencil - apparently, it was written on her knee. (9) I had to go up to the lamp to make out the dim, half-finished lines.
(10) Varya immediately stumbled upon the main place.
(11) “Perhaps the only reason, my dear, why he was silent all this time was that there was nowhere to settle down,” Rodion wrote briefly, with unexpected fullness and straightforwardly, as in a confession. (12) - We are still retreating for now, retreating day and night, occupying more advantageous defensive lines, as they say in the reports. (13) I was very sick, besides, and now I have not yet fully recovered: my illness is worse than any concussion. (14) The most bitter thing is that I myself am quite healthy, all whole, so far there is not a single scratch on me. (15) Burn this letter, I can only tell you about it in the whole world, - Varya turned the page.
(16) The incident happened in one Russian village, which our unit passed in retreat. (17) I was the last in the company ... and maybe the last in the whole army. (18) A local girl of about nine stood in front of us on the road, just a child, apparently trained at school to love the Red Army ... (19) Of course, she did not really understand the strategic situation. (20) She ran up to us with wild flowers, and, as it happened, I got them. (21) She had such inquisitive, questioning eyes - it’s a thousand times easier to look at the midday sun, but I forced myself to take a bunch, because I’m not a coward, I swear to you by my mother, Polenka, that I’m not a coward. (22) I closed my eyes, and accepted it from her, who was left at the mercy of the enemy ... (23) Since then, I have kept that withered broom constantly with me, on my body,
as if I carry a fire in my bosom, I order him to put it on himself in the grave, if something happens. (24) I thought I would bleed seven times before I become a man, but this is how it happens, dry ... and this is a font of maturity! - (25) Then two lines came across completely illegible. - (26) And I don’t know, Polenka, will my whole life be enough to pay for that gift ... "
(27) - Yes, he has grown very much, your Rodion, you are right ... - folding the letter, Varya said, because with such a line of thought, this soldier would hardly have been capable of any reprehensible act.
(28) Embracing, the girlfriends listened to the rustle of rain and the rare, fading horns of cars. (29) The topic of conversation was the events of the past day: an exhibition of captured aircraft that opened on the central square, an unfilled crater on Veselykh Street, as they are already accustomed to calling it among themselves, Gastello, whose selfless feat thundered in those days all over the country.
(According to L. Leonov*)
The writing
Introduction
Every person in certain period life goes through the process of growing up. Most people mature over a number of years, gradually gaining life experience. Someone becomes an adult quickly, performing, for example, some kind of heroic deed. And only a few grow up instantly, unexpectedly.
Problem Statement
The problem of growing up a person cannot leave anyone indifferent, including the famous Russian writer, author of the novel "Russian Forest" Leonid Leonov. It does not depend on time, on the nationality of a person and on what country he is a resident of. What does growing up depend on?
Tasks of the C1-C4 part
1. What environmental factors contribute to the regulation of the number of wolves in the ecosystem?
Answer:
1) anthropogenic: deforestation, overshooting;
2) biotic: lack of food, competition, spread of diseases.
2. Determine the type and phase of cell division shown in the figure. What processes take place in this phase?
Answer:
1) the figure shows the metaphase of mitosis;
2) spindle fibers are attached to the centromeres of chromosomes;
3) in this phase, two-chromatid chromosomes line up in the plane of the equator.
3. Why does plowing the soil improve the living conditions of cultivated plants?
Answer:
1) contributes to the destruction of weeds and weakens competition with cultivated plants;
2) contributes to the supply of plants with water and minerals;
3) increases the supply of oxygen to the roots.
4. How is a natural ecosystem different from an agroecosystem?
Answer:
1) great biodiversity and diversity of food relationships and food chains;
2) a balanced circulation of substances;
3) long periods of existence.
5. Expand the mechanisms that ensure the constancy of the number and shape of chromosomes in all cells of organisms from generation to generation?
Answer:
1) due to meiosis, gametes with a haploid set of chromosomes are formed;
2) during fertilization in the zygote, the diploid set of chromosomes is restored, which ensures the constancy of the chromosome set;
3) the growth of the organism occurs due to mitosis, which ensures the constancy of the number of chromosomes in somatic cells.
6. What is the role of bacteria in the cycle of matter?
Answer:
1) heterotrophic bacteria - decomposers decompose organic matter to mineral, which are absorbed by plants;
2) autotrophic bacteria (photo, chemotrophs) - producers synthesize organic substances from inorganic ones, ensuring the circulation of oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, etc.
7. What are the characteristics of mossy plants?
Answer:
2) mosses reproduce both sexually and asexually with alternating generations: sexual (gametophyte) and asexual (sporophyte);
3) an adult moss plant is a sexual generation (gametophyte) and a box with spores is asexual (sporophyte);
4) fertilization occurs in the presence of water.
8. Squirrels, as a rule, live in a coniferous forest and feed mainly on spruce seeds. What biotic factors can lead to a reduction in the squirrel population?
9. It is known that the Golgi apparatus is especially well developed in the glandular cells of the pancreas. Explain why.
Answer:
1) in the cells of the pancreas, enzymes are synthesized that accumulate in the cavities of the Golgi apparatus;
2) in the Golgi apparatus, enzymes are packed in the form of bubbles;
3) from the Golgi apparatus, enzymes are carried into the pancreatic duct.
10. Ribosomes from different cells, the entire set of amino acids and the same molecules of mRNA and tRNA were placed in a test tube, and all the conditions for protein synthesis were created. Why will one type of protein be synthesized on different ribosomes in a test tube?
Answer:
1) the primary structure of a protein is determined by the sequence of amino acids;
2) templates for protein synthesis are the same mRNA molecules, in which the same primary protein structure is encoded.
11. What features of the structure are characteristic of representatives of the Chordata type?
Answer:
1) internal axial skeleton;
2) the nervous system in the form of a tube on the dorsal side of the body;
3) gaps in the digestive tube.
12. Clover grows in a meadow, pollinated by bumblebees. What biotic factors can lead to a decline in the clover population?
Answer:
1) a decrease in the number of bumblebees;
2) an increase in the number of herbivorous animals;
3) reproduction of plants of competitors (cereals, etc.).
13. The total mass of mitochondria in relation to the mass of cells of various organs of the rat is: in the pancreas - 7.9%, in the liver - 18.4%, in the heart - 35.8%. Why do the cells of these organs have a different content of mitochondria?
Answer:
1) mitochondria are the energy stations of the cell, ATP molecules are synthesized and accumulated in them;
2) for the intensive work of the heart muscle, a lot of energy is needed, therefore the content of mitochondria in its cells is the highest;
3) in the liver, the number of mitochondria is higher compared to the pancreas, since it has a more intensive metabolism.
14. Explain why beef that has not passed sanitary control is dangerous to eat undercooked or lightly fried.
Answer:
1) in beef meat there may be finns of bovine tapeworm;
2) in the digestive canal, an adult worm develops from the Finn, and the person becomes the final owner.
15. Name the plant cell organoid shown in the figure, its structures, indicated by numbers 1-3, and their functions.
Answer:
1) the depicted organoid is a chloroplast;
2) 1 - grana thylakoids, participate in photosynthesis;
3) 2 - DNA, 3 - ribosomes, are involved in the synthesis of their own chloroplast proteins.
16. Why bacteria cannot be classified as eukaryotes?
Answer:
1) in their cells, the nuclear substance is represented by one circular DNA molecule and is not separated from the cytoplasm;
2) do not have mitochondria, Golgi complex, EPS;
3) do not have specialized germ cells, there are no meiosis and fertilization.
17. What changes in biotic factors can lead to an increase in the population of the naked slug that lives in the forest and feeds mainly on plants?
18. In the leaves of plants, the process of photosynthesis proceeds intensively. Does it occur in mature and unripe fruits? Explain the answer.
Answer:
1) photosynthesis occurs in immature fruits (while they are green), since they contain chloroplasts;
2) as they mature, chloroplasts turn into chromoplasts, in which photosynthesis does not occur.
19. What stages of gametogenesis are indicated in the figure by the letters A, B and C? What set of chromosomes do cells have at each of these stages? To the development of what specialized cells does this process lead?
Answer:
1) A - stage (zone) of reproduction (division), diploid cells;
2) B - growth stage (zone), diploid cell;
3) B - stage (zone) of maturation, haploid cells, spermatozoa develop.
20. What is the difference in structure bacterial cells from the cells of organisms of other kingdoms of living nature? List at least three differences.
Answer:
1) there is no formed core, nuclear membrane;
2) a number of organelles are absent: mitochondria, ER, Golgi complex, etc.;
3) have one ring chromosome.
21. Why are plants (producers) considered the initial link in the circulation of substances and the transformation of energy in an ecosystem?
Answer:
1) create organic substances from inorganic;
2) accumulate solar energy;
3) provide organic matter and energy to the organisms of other parts of the ecosystem.
22. What processes ensure the movement of water and minerals through the plant?
Answer:
1) from the root to the leaves, water and minerals move through the vessels due to transpiration, which results in a sucking force;
2) the upward current in the plant is promoted by root pressure, which occurs as a result of the constant flow of water to the root due to the difference in the concentration of substances in the cells and the environment.
23. Consider the cells shown in the figure. Determine what letters denote prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. Provide evidence for your point of view.
Answer:
1) A - prokaryotic cell, B - eukaryotic cell;
2) the cell in figure A does not have a formed nucleus, its hereditary material is represented by a ring chromosome;
3) the cell in figure B has a well-formed nucleus and organelles.
24. What is the complication of the circulatory system of amphibians compared to fish?
Answer:
1) the heart becomes three-chambered;
2) the second circle of blood circulation appears;
3) the heart contains venous and mixed blood.
25. Why is a mixed forest ecosystem considered more sustainable than a spruce forest ecosystem?
Answer:
1) there are more species in a mixed forest than in a spruce forest;
2) in a mixed forest, food chains are longer and more branched than in a spruce forest;
3) there are more tiers in a mixed forest than in a spruce forest.
26. A section of a DNA molecule has the following composition: GATGAATAGTGCTTC. List at least three consequences that an accidental replacement of the seventh nucleotide of thymine with cytosine (C) can lead to.
Answer:
1) will happen gene mutation- the codon of the third amino acid will change;
2) in a protein, one amino acid can be replaced by another, as a result, the primary structure of the protein will change;
3) all other protein structures can change, which will lead to the appearance of a new trait in the body.
27. Red algae (crimson) live at great depths. Despite this, photosynthesis occurs in their cells. Explain how photosynthesis occurs if the water column absorbs the rays of the red-orange part of the spectrum.
Answer:
1) for photosynthesis, rays are needed not only in the red, but also in the blue part of the spectrum;
2) purple cells contain a red pigment that absorbs the rays of the blue part of the spectrum, their energy is used in the process of photosynthesis.
28. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, correct them.
1. Coelenterates are three-layer multicellular animals. 2. They have a gastric or intestinal cavity. 3. The intestinal cavity includes stinging cells. 4. Coelenterates have a mesh (diffuse) nervous system. 5. All intestinal - free-floating organisms.
1) 1 - coelenterates - two-layer animals;
2)3 - stinging cells are contained in the ectoderm, and not in the intestinal cavity;
3)5 - among the coelenterates there are attached forms.
29. How does gas exchange occur in the lungs and tissues in mammals? What is the reason for this process?
Answer:
1) gas exchange is based on diffusion, which is due to the difference in the concentration of gases (partial pressure) in the air of the alveoli and in the blood;
2) oxygen from the area high pressure in the alveolar air enters the blood, and carbon dioxide from an area of high blood pressure enters the alveoli;
3) in the tissues, oxygen from the high pressure area in the capillaries enters the intercellular substance and then into the cells of the organs. Carbon dioxide from the area of high pressure in the intercellular substance enters the blood.
30. What is the participation of functional groups of organisms in the circulation of substances in the biosphere? Consider the role of each of them in the cycle of substances in the biosphere.
Answer:
1) producers synthesize organic substances from inorganic substances (carbon dioxide, water, nitrogen, phosphorus and other minerals), release oxygen (except for chemotrophs);
2) consumers (and other functional groups) of organisms use and convert organic substances, oxidize them during respiration, absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide and water;
3) decomposers decompose organic substances to inorganic compounds of nitrogen, phosphorus, etc., returning them to the environment.
31. A section of a DNA molecule encoding a sequence of amino acids in a protein has the following composition: G-A-T-G-A-A-T-A-G-TT-C-T-T-C. Explain the consequences of accidentally adding a guanine (G) nucleotide between the seventh and eighth nucleotides.
Answer:
1) a gene mutation will occur - the codes of the third and subsequent amino acids may change;
2) the primary structure of the protein may change;
3) a mutation can lead to the appearance of a new trait in an organism.
32. What plant organs are damaged by May beetles at different stages of individual development?
Answer:
1) plant roots damage larvae;
2) tree leaves damage adult beetles.
33. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, correct them.
1. flatworms are three-layered animals. 2. Type Flatworms include white planaria, human roundworm and liver fluke. 3. Flatworms have an elongated flattened body. 4. They have a well-developed nervous system. 5. Flatworms are dioecious animals that lay eggs.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1) 2 - the type of Flatworms does not include the human roundworm, it is a Roundworm;
2) 4 - in flatworms, the nervous system is poorly developed;
3) 5 - Flatworms - hermaphrodites.
34. What is a fetus? What is its significance in the life of plants and animals?
Answer:
1) fruit - generative organ of angiosperms;
2) contains seeds, with the help of which the reproduction and resettlement of plants occurs;
3) the fruits of plants are food for animals.
35. Most of species of birds fly away for the winter from the northern regions, despite their warm-bloodedness. Name at least three factors that cause these animals to migrate.
Answer:
1) food objects of insectivorous birds become unavailable for getting;
2) ice cover on water bodies and snow cover on the ground deprive herbivorous birds of food;
3) change in the length of daylight hours.
36. Which milk, sterilized or freshly milked, will go sour faster under the same conditions? Explain the answer.
Answer:
1) freshly milked milk will sour faster, as it contains bacteria that cause fermentation of the product;
2) when milk is sterilized, cells and spores of lactic acid bacteria die, and milk is stored longer.
37. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, explain them.
1. The main classes of the type of arthropods are Crustaceans, Arachnids and Insects. 2. The body of crustaceans and arachnids is divided into head, thorax and abdomen. 3. The body of insects consists of a cephalothorax and an abdomen. 4. Spider antennae don't. 5. Insects have two pairs of antennae, while crustaceans have one pair.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1) 2 - the body of crustaceans and arachnids consists of a cephalothorax and abdomen;
2)3 - the body of insects consists of a head, chest and abdomen;
3-5 - insects have one pair of antennae, and crustaceans have two pairs.
38. Prove that the rhizome of a plant is a modified shoot.
Answer:
1) the rhizome has nodes in which there are rudimentary leaves and buds;
2) at the top of the rhizome is the apical bud, which determines the growth of the shoot;
3) adventitious roots depart from the rhizome;
4) the internal anatomical structure of the rhizome is similar to the stem.
39. Man uses chemicals to control pests. Indicate at least three changes in the life of an oak forest if all herbivorous insects are destroyed in it by a chemical method. Explain why they will happen.
Answer:
1) the number of insect pollinated plants will decrease sharply, since herbivorous insects are pollinators of plants;
2) the number of insectivorous organisms (consumers of the second order) will sharply decrease or they will disappear due to disruption of food chains;
3)part chemical substances, which destroyed insects, will fall into the soil, which will lead to a violation of the vital activity of plants, the death of soil flora and fauna, all violations can lead to the death of oak forests.
40. Why can antibiotic treatment lead to bowel dysfunction? Name at least two reasons.
Answer:
1) antibiotics kill beneficial bacteria that live in the human intestine;
2) fiber breakdown, water absorption and other processes are disturbed.
41. What part of the sheet is indicated in the figure by the letter A and what structures does it consist of? What are the functions of these structures?
1) the letter A denotes a vascular fibrous bundle (vein), the bundle includes vessels, sieve tubes, mechanical tissue;
2) vessels provide water transport to the leaves;
3) sieve tubes provide transport of organic substances from leaves to other organs;
4) mechanical tissue cells give strength and are the framework of the sheet.
42. What are characteristics mushroom kingdom?
Answer:
1) the body of fungi consists of filaments - hyphae, forming a mycelium;
2) reproduce sexually and asexually (spores, mycelium, budding);
3) grow throughout life;
4) in the cell: the shell contains a chitin-like substance, a reserve nutrient - glycogen.
43. In a small reservoir formed after the flood of the river, the following organisms were found: ciliates-shoes, daphnia, white planarians, a large pond snail, cyclops, hydras. Explain whether this body of water can be considered an ecosystem. Give at least three pieces of evidence.
Answer:
The named temporary reservoir cannot be called an ecosystem, since in it:
1) there are no producers;
2) there are no decomposers;
3) there is no closed circulation of substances and food chains are broken.
44. Why is a note placed under the tourniquet, which is applied to stop bleeding from large blood vessels, indicating the time of its application?
Answer:
1) after reading the note, you can determine how much time has passed since the tourniquet was applied;
2) if after 1-2 hours it was not possible to deliver the patient to the doctor, then the tourniquet should be loosened for a while. This will prevent tissue necrosis.
45. Name structures spinal cord, indicated in the figure by numbers 1 and 2, and describe the features of their structure and function.
Answer:
1) 1 - gray matter, formed by the bodies of neurons;
2)2 - white matter, formed by long processes of neurons;
3) gray matter performs a reflex function, white matter - a conductive function.
46. What role do salivary glands play in digestion in mammals? List at least three functions.
Answer:
1) the secretion of the salivary glands moistens and disinfects food;
2) saliva is involved in the formation of the food bolus;
3) saliva enzymes contribute to the breakdown of starch.
47. As a result of volcanic activity, an island was formed in the ocean. Describe the sequence of ecosystem formation on a newly formed piece of land. List at least three items.
Answer:
1) the first to settle are microorganisms and lichens that provide soil formation;
2) plants settle on the soil, the spores or seeds of which are carried by wind or water;
3) as vegetation develops, animals appear in the ecosystem, primarily arthropods and birds.
48. Experienced gardeners apply fertilizer to the grooves located along the edges of the near-stem circles of fruit trees, and do not distribute them evenly. Explain why.
Answer:
1) the root system grows, the suction zone moves behind the root tip;
2) roots with a developed suction zone - root hairs - are located along the edges of the near-stem circles.
49. What modified shoot is shown in the picture? Name the elements of the structure, indicated in the figure by the numbers 1, 2, 3, and the functions that they perform.
Answer:
1) bulb;
2) 1 - juicy scaly leaf, in which nutrients and water are stored;
3) 2 - adventitious roots that ensure the absorption of water and minerals;
4) 3 - kidney, ensures the growth of the shoot.
50. What are the features of the structure and life of mosses? List at least three items.
Answer:
1) most mosses are leafy plants, some of them have rhizoids;
2) mosses have a poorly developed conducting system;
3) mosses reproduce both sexually and asexually, with alternation of generations: sexual (gametophyte) and asexual (sporophyte); an adult moss plant is a sexual generation, and a spore box is asexual.
51. As a result of a forest fire, part of the spruce forest burned out. Explain how it will self-heal. List at least three steps.
Answer:
1) herbaceous light-loving plants develop first;
2) then shoots of birch, aspen, pine appear, the seeds of which fell with the help of the wind, a small-leaved or pine forest is formed.
3) under the canopy of light-loving species, shade-tolerant spruces develop, which subsequently completely crowd out other trees.
52. To establish the cause of a hereditary disease, the patient's cells were examined and a change in the length of one of the chromosomes was found. What research method allowed to establish the cause of this disease? What kind of mutation is it associated with?
Answer:
1) the cause of the disease is established using the cytogenetic method;
2) the disease is caused by a chromosomal mutation - the loss or addition of a chromosome fragment.
53. What letter in the figure indicates the blastula in the development cycle of the lancelet. What are the features of blastula formation?
Answer:
1) the blastula is designated by the letter G;
2) the blastula is formed during the crushing of the zygote;
3) the size of the blastula does not exceed the size of the zygote.
54. Why are fungi isolated in a special kingdom of the organic world?
Answer:
1) the body of mushrooms consists of thin branching threads - hyphae, forming a mycelium, or mycelium;
2) mycelium cells store carbohydrates in the form of glycogen;
3) fungi cannot be attributed to plants, since their cells do not have chlorophyll and chloroplasts; the wall contains chitin;
4) mushrooms cannot be attributed to animals, since they absorb nutrients from the entire surface of the body, and do not swallow them in the form of food lumps.
55. In some forest biocenoses, mass shooting of diurnal birds of prey was carried out to protect chicken birds. Explain how this event affected the number of chickens.
Answer:
1) at first, the number of chickens increased, since their enemies (naturally regulating the number) were destroyed;
2) then the number of chickens decreased due to lack of food;
3) the number of sick and weakened individuals increased due to the spread of diseases and the absence of predators, which also affected the decrease in the number of chickens.
56. The color of the fur of a white hare changes throughout the year: in winter the hare is white, and in summer it is gray. Explain what type of variability is observed in an animal and what determines the manifestation of this trait.
Answer:
1) a manifestation of modification (phenotypic, non-hereditary) variability is observed in a hare;
2) the manifestation of this trait is determined by changes in environmental conditions (temperature, day length).
57. Name the stages of embryonic development of the lancelet, indicated in the figure by the letters A and B. Expand the features of the formation of each of these stages.
A B
Answer:
1) A - gastrula - the stage of a two-layer embryo;
2) B - neurula, has the beginnings of a future larva or adult organism;
3) the gastrula is formed by invagination of the blastula wall, and in the neurula, the neural plate is first laid, which serves as a regulator for laying the rest of the organ systems.
58. What are the main features of the structure and vital activity of bacteria. List at least four features.
Answer:
1) bacteria - pre-nuclear organisms that do not have a formalized nucleus and many organelles;
2) according to the method of nutrition, bacteria are heterotrophs and autotrophs;
3) high rate of reproduction by division;
4) anaerobes and aerobes;
5) unfavorable conditions are experienced in a state of dispute.
59. What is the difference between the ground-air environment and the water?
Answer:
1) oxygen content;
2) differences in temperature fluctuations (wide amplitude of fluctuations in the ground-air environment);
3) the degree of illumination;
4) density.
Answer:
1) seaweed has the ability to accumulate chemical element iodine;
2) Iodine is essential for normal thyroid function.
61. Why is a shoe ciliate cell considered an integral organism? What organelles of ciliates-shoes are indicated in the figure by the numbers 1 and 2 and what functions do they perform?
Answer:
1) the ciliate cell performs all the functions of an independent organism: metabolism, reproduction, irritability, adaptation;
2) 1 - a small nucleus, participates in the sexual process;
3) 2 - a large core, regulates vital processes.
61. What are the features of the structure and life of fungi? List at least three features.
62. Explain the harm to plants caused by acid rain. Give at least three reasons.
Answer:
1) directly damage the organs and tissues of plants;
2) pollute the soil, reduce fertility;
3) reduce the productivity of plants.
63. Why are passengers advised to suck on lollipops when taking off or landing an airplane?
Answer:
1) a rapid change in pressure during takeoff or landing of an aircraft causes discomfort in the middle ear, where the initial pressure on the eardrum lasts longer;
2) swallowing movements improve the access of air to the auditory (Eustachian) tube, through which the pressure in the middle ear cavity equalizes with the pressure in the environment.
64. How does the circulatory system of arthropods differ from the circulatory system of annelids? Indicate at least three signs that prove these differences.
Answer:
1) in arthropods, the circulatory system is open, and in annelids it is closed;
2) arthropods have a heart on the dorsal side;
3) annelids do not have a heart, its function is performed by an annular vessel.
65. What type is the animal shown in the picture? What is indicated by numbers 1 and 2? Name other representatives of this type.
Answer:
1) to the type of intestinal;
2) 1 - ectoderm, 2 - intestinal cavity;
3) coral polyps, jellyfish.
66. What are the morphological, physiological and behavioral adaptations to environmental temperature in warm-blooded animals?
Answer:
1) morphological: heat-insulating covers, subcutaneous fat layer, changes in the surface of the body;
2) physiological: increased intensity of evaporation of sweat and moisture during breathing; narrowing or dilation of blood vessels, changes in the level of metabolism;
3) behavioral: construction of nests, burrows, changes in daily and seasonal activity depending on the temperature of the environment.
67. How is the receipt of genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome?
Answer:
1) mRNA synthesis occurs in the nucleus in accordance with the principle of complementarity;
2) mRNA - a copy of the DNA section containing information about the primary structure of the protein moves from the nucleus to the ribosome.
68. What is the complication of ferns in comparison with mosses? Give at least three signs.
Answer:
1) ferns have roots;
2) in ferns, unlike mosses, a developed conductive tissue has formed;
3) in the development cycle of ferns, the asexual generation (sporophyte) prevails over the sexual (gametophyte), which is represented by the outgrowth.
69. Name the embryonic layer of a vertebrate animal, indicated in the figure by the number 3. What type of tissue and what organs are formed from it.
Answer:
1) germinal layer - endoderm;
2epithelial tissue (intestinal and respiratory epithelium);
3) organs: intestines, digestive glands, respiratory organs, some endocrine glands.
70. What role do birds play in the biocenosis of the forest? Give at least three examples.
Answer:
1) regulate the number of plants (distribute fruits and seeds);
2) regulate the number of insects, small rodents;
3) serve as food for predators;
4) fertilize the soil.
71. What is the protective role of leukocytes in the human body?
Answer:
1) leukocytes are capable of phagocytosis - devouring and digesting proteins, microorganisms, dead cells;
2) leukocytes are involved in the production of antibodies that neutralize certain antigens.
72. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the proposals in which they are made, correct them.
According to the chromosome theory of heredity:
1. Genes are located on chromosomes in a linear order. 2. Everyone occupies a certain place - an allele. 3. Genes on one chromosome form a linkage group. 4. The number of linkage groups is determined by the diploid boron of chromosomes. 5. Violation of gene linkage occurs in the process of conjugation of chromosomes in the prophase of meiosis.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1)2 - location of the gene - locus;
2)4 - the number of linkage groups is equal to the haploid set of chromosomes;
3)5 - disruption of gene linkage occurs during crossing over.
73. Why do some scientists refer to green euglena as a plant, and others as an animal? List at least three reasons.
Answer:
1) capable of heterotrophic nutrition, like all animals;
2) capable of active movement in search of food, like all animals;
3) contains chlorophyll in the cell and is capable of autotrophic nutrition, like plants.
74. What processes take place at the stages of energy metabolism?
Answer:
1) at the preparatory stage, complex organic substances are split into less complex ones (biopolymers - to monomers), energy is dissipated in the form of heat;
2) in the process of glycolysis, glucose is broken down to pyruvic acid (or lactic acid, or alcohol) and 2 ATP molecules are synthesized;
3) at the oxygen stage, pyruvic acid (pyruvate) is broken down to carbon dioxide and water and 36 ATP molecules are synthesized.
75. In a wound formed on the human body, bleeding eventually stops, but suppuration may occur. Explain what properties of blood this is due to.
Answer:
1) bleeding stops due to blood clotting and the formation of a blood clot;
2) suppuration is due to the accumulation of dead leukocytes that have carried out phagocytosis.
76. Find errors in the given text, correct them. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, explain them.
1. Great importance in the structure and life of organisms have proteins. 2. These are biopolymers whose monomers are nitrogenous bases. 3. Proteins are part of the plasma membrane. 4. Many proteins perform an enzymatic function in the cell. 5. Encrypted in protein molecules hereditary information about the characteristics of the organism. 6. Protein and tRNA molecules are part of ribosomes.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1) 2 - protein monomers are amino acids;
2)5 - hereditary information about the characteristics of the organism is encrypted in DNA molecules;
3)6- ribosomes contain rRNA molecules, not tRNA.
77. What is myopia? In what part of the eye is the image focused in a nearsighted person? What is the difference between congenital and acquired forms of myopia?
Answer:
1) myopia is a disease of the organs of vision, in which a person does not distinguish distant objects;
2) in a nearsighted person, the image of objects appears in front of the retina;
3) with congenital myopia, the shape of the eyeball changes (lengthens);
4) acquired myopia is associated with a change (increase) in the curvature of the lens.
78. What is the difference between the skeleton of the human head and the skeleton of the head great apes? List at least four differences.
Answer:
1) the predominance of the brain of the skull over the facial;
2) reduction of the jaw apparatus;
3) the presence of a chin protrusion on the lower jaw;
4) reduction of superciliary arches.
79. Why is the volume of urine excreted by the human body per day not is equal to the volume liquid drunk during the same time?
Answer:
1) part of the water is used by the body or is formed in metabolic processes;
2) part of the water evaporates through the respiratory organs and sweat glands.
80. Find errors in the given text, correct them, indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they are made, write down these sentences without errors.
1. Animals are heterotrophic organisms; they feed on ready-made organic substances. 2. There are unicellular and multicellular animals. 3. All multicellular animals have bilateral body symmetry. 4. Most of them have developed various organs of locomotion. 5. Only arthropods and chordates have a circulatory system. 6. Postembryonic development in all multicellular animals is direct.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1) 3 - not all multicellular animals have bilateral symmetry of the body; for example, in coelenterates it is radial (radial);
2) 5 - the circulatory system is also present in annelids and mollusks;
3) 6 - direct postembryonic development is not inherent in all multicellular animals.
81. What is the importance of blood in human life?
Answer:
1) performs a transport function: delivery of oxygen and nutrients to tissues and cells, removal of carbon dioxide and metabolic products;
2) performs a protective function due to the activity of leukocytes and antibodies;
3) participates in the humoral regulation of the vital activity of the organism.
82. Use information about the early stages of embryogenesis (zygote, blastula, gastrula) to confirm the sequence of development of the animal world.
Answer:
1) the zygote stage corresponds to a unicellular organism;
2) the blastula stage, where cells are not differentiated, is similar to colonial forms;
3) the embryo at the gastrula stage corresponds to the structure of the intestinal cavity (hydra).
83. The introduction of large doses of drugs into a vein is accompanied by their dilution with saline (0.9% NaCl solution). Explain why.
Answer:
1) the introduction of large doses of drugs without dilution can cause a sharp change in the composition of the blood and irreversible phenomena;
2) the concentration of physiological saline (0.9% NaCl solution) corresponds to the concentration of salts in the blood plasma and does not cause the death of blood cells.
84. Find errors in the given text, correct them, indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they are made, write down these sentences without errors.
1. Animals of the arthropod type have an outer chitinous cover and jointed limbs. 2. The body of most of them consists of three sections: the head, chest and abdomen. 3. All arthropods have one pair of antennae. 4. Their eyes are complex (faceted). 5. The circulatory system of insects is closed.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1)3 - not all arthropods have one pair of antennae (arachnoids do not have them, and crustaceans have two pairs each);
2) 4 - not all arthropods have compound (compound) eyes: in arachnids they are simple or absent, in insects, along with compound eyes, they can be simple;
3-5 - the circulatory system in arthropods is not closed.
85. What are the functions of the human digestive system?
Answer:
1) mechanical processing of food;
2) chemical processing of food;
3) movement of food and removal of undigested residues;
4) absorption of nutrients, mineral salts and water into the blood and lymph.
86. What characterizes biological progress in flowering plants? List at least three features.
Answer:
1) a wide variety of populations and species;
2) wide settlement on the globe;
3) adaptability to life in different environmental conditions.
87. Why should food be chewed thoroughly?
Answer:
1) well-chewed food is quickly saturated with saliva in the oral cavity and begins to be digested;
2) well-chewed food is quickly saturated with digestive juices in the stomach and intestines and therefore easier to digest.
88. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the proposals in which they are made, correct them.
1. A population is a collection of freely interbreeding individuals of the same species that inhabit a common territory for a long time. 2. Different populations of the same species are relatively isolated from each other, and their individuals do not interbreed. 3. The gene pool of all populations of the same species is the same. 4. The population is the elementary unit of evolution. 5. A group of frogs of the same species living in a deep puddle for one summer is a population.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1)2 - populations of the same species are partially isolated, but individuals of different populations can interbreed;
2)3 — gene pools of different populations of the same species are different;
3)5 - a group of frogs is not a population, since a group of individuals of the same species is considered a population if it a large number generations occupy the same space.
89. Why is it recommended to drink salted water in summer with prolonged thirst?
Answer:
1) in summer, sweating increases in a person;
2) mineral salts are excreted from the body with sweat;
3) salted water restores the normal water-salt balance between tissues and internal environment organism.
90. What proves that a person belongs to the class of mammals?
Answer:
1) the similarity of the structure of organ systems;
2) the presence of hairline;
3) the development of the embryo in the uterus;
4) feeding offspring with milk, caring for offspring.
91. What processes maintain consistency chemical composition human blood plasma?
Answer:
1) processes in buffer systems maintain the reaction of the medium (pH) at a constant level;
2) neurohumoral regulation of the chemical composition of plasma is carried out.
92. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the proposals in which they are made, explain them.
1. A population is a collection of freely interbreeding individuals different types, inhabiting a common territory for a long time. 2. The main group characteristics of the population are the number, density, age, sex and spatial structures. 3. The totality of all the genes of a population is called the gene pool. 4. Population is a structural unit of living nature. 5. The number of populations is always stable.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1)1 - a population is a collection of freely interbreeding individuals of the same species, inhabiting the common territory of the population for a long time;
2)4 - the population is a structural unit of the species;
3-5 - the number of populations can change in different seasons and years.
93. What structures of the integument of the body provide protection for the human body from the effects of environmental temperature factors? Explain their role.
Answer:
1) subcutaneous fatty tissue protects the body from cooling;
2) sweat glands form sweat, which, when evaporated, protects against overheating;
3) the hair on the head protects the body from cooling and overheating;
4) changing the lumen of skin capillaries regulates heat transfer.
94. Give at least three progressive biological features of a person, which he acquired in the process of long evolution.
Answer:
1) an increase in the brain and cerebral part of the skull;
2) upright posture and corresponding changes in the skeleton;
3) liberation and development of the hand, opposition of the thumb.
95. What division of meiosis is similar to mitosis? Explain how it is expressed and what set of chromosomes in the cell leads to.
Answer:
1) similarity with mitosis is observed in the second division of meiosis;
2) all phases are similar, sister chromosomes (chromatids) diverge to the poles of the cell;
3) the resulting cells have a haploid set of chromosomes.
96. What is the difference between arterial bleeding and venous bleeding?
Answer:
1) with arterial bleeding, scarlet blood;
2) it shoots out of the wound with a strong jet, a fountain.
97. The scheme of what process occurring in the human body is shown in the figure? What underlies this process and how does the composition of the blood change as a result? Explain the answer.
capillary
Answer:
1) the figure shows a diagram of gas exchange in the lungs (between the pulmonary vesicle and the blood capillary);
2) gas exchange is based on diffusion - the penetration of gases from a place with high pressure to a place with less pressure;
3) as a result of gas exchange, the blood is saturated with oxygen and turns from venous (A) to arterial (B).
98. What effect does hypodynamia (low motor activity) have on the human body?
Answer:
hypodynamia leads to:
1) to a decrease in the level of metabolism, an increase in adipose tissue, overweight;
2) weakening of the skeletal and cardiac muscles, increasing the load on the heart and reducing the endurance of the body;
3) venous blood stagnation in the lower extremities, vasodilation, circulatory disorders.
(Other formulations of the answer are allowed that do not distort its meaning.)
99. What are the characteristics of plants that live in arid conditions?
Answer:
1) the root system of plants penetrates deep into the soil, reaches the groundwater or is located in the surface layer of the soil;
2) in some plants, water is stored in leaves, stems and other organs during drought;
3) the leaves are covered with a wax coating, pubescent or modified into spines or needles.
100. What is the reason for the need for iron ions to enter the human blood? Explain the answer.
Answer:
2) erythrocytes provide transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
101. Through what vessels and what kind of blood enters the chambers of the heart, indicated in the figure by numbers 3 and 5? With what circle of blood circulation is each of these structures of the heart connected?
Answer:
1) venous blood enters the chamber marked with the number 3 from the superior and inferior vena cava;
2) the chamber marked with the number 5 receives arterial blood from the pulmonary veins;
3) the chamber of the heart, indicated by the number 3, is associated with a large circle of blood circulation;
4) the chamber of the heart, indicated by the number 5, is associated with the pulmonary circulation.
102. What are vitamins, what is their role in the life of the human body?
Answer:
1) vitamins - biologically active organic substances needed in small quantities;
2) they are part of enzymes, participating in metabolism;
3) increase the body's resistance to adverse effects external environment, stimulate growth, development of the organism, restoration of tissues and cells.
103. The body shape of the Kalima butterfly resembles a leaf. How did a similar body shape form in a butterfly?
Answer:
1) the appearance in individuals of various hereditary changes;
2) preservation by natural selection of individuals with a modified body shape;
3) reproduction and distribution of individuals with a body shape resembling a leaf.
104. What is the nature of most enzymes and why do they lose their activity when the level of radiation increases?
Answer:
1) most enzymes are proteins;
2) under the action of radiation, denaturation occurs, the structure of the protein-enzyme changes.
105. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of proposals in which they are made, correct them.
1. Plants, like all living organisms, feed, breathe, grow, reproduce. 2. According to the method of nutrition, plants are classified as autotrophic organisms. 3. When breathing, plants absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen. 4. All plants reproduce by seeds. 5. Plants, like animals, grow only in the first years of life.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1) 3 - when breathing, plants absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide;
2-4 - only flowering and gymnosperms reproduce by seeds, and algae, mosses, ferns - by spores;
3-5 - plants grow throughout their lives, have unlimited growth.
106. What is the reason for the need for iron ions to enter the human blood? Explain the answer.
Answer:
1) iron ions are part of the hemoglobin of erythrocytes;
2) erythrocyte hemoglobin provides transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as it is able to bind to these gases;
3) the supply of oxygen is necessary for the energy metabolism of the cell, and carbon dioxide is its final product to be removed.
107. Explain why people of different races are classified as the same species. Give at least three pieces of evidence.
Answer:
1) the similarity of the structure, life processes, behavior;
2) genetic unity - the same set of chromosomes, their structure;
3) interracial marriages produce offspring capable of reproduction.
108. In ancient India, a person suspected of a crime was offered to swallow a handful of dry rice. If he did not succeed, the guilt was considered proven. Give a physiological justification for this process.
Answer:
1) swallowing is a complex reflex act, which is accompanied by salivation and irritation of the root of the tongue;
2) with strong excitement, salivation is sharply inhibited, the mouth becomes dry, and the swallowing reflex does not occur.
109. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the proposals in which they are made, explain them.
1. The composition of the food chain of biogeocenosis includes producers, consumers and decomposers. 2. The first link in the food chain are consumers. 3. Consumers in the world accumulate energy absorbed in the process of photosynthesis. 4. In the dark phase of photosynthesis, oxygen is released. 5. Reducers contribute to the release of energy accumulated by consumers and producers.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1) 2 - the first link is the producers;
2) 3 - consumers are not capable of photosynthesis;
3)4 - oxygen is released in the light phase of photosynthesis.
110. What are the causes of anemia in humans? List at least three possible reasons.
Answer:
1) large blood loss;
2) malnutrition (lack of iron and vitamins, etc.);
3) violation of the formation of erythrocytes in the hematopoietic organs.
111. The wasp fly is similar in color and body shape to a wasp. Name the type of its protective device, explain its significance and the relative nature of fitness.
Answer:
1) type of adaptation - mimicry, imitation of the color and shape of the body of an unprotected animal to a protected one;
2) resemblance to a wasp warns a possible predator about the danger of being stung;
3) the fly becomes the prey of young birds that have not yet developed a reflex to the wasp.
112. Make up a food chain using all of the following objects: humus, cross-spider, hawk, great tit, housefly. Determine the consumers of the third order in the compiled chain.
Answer:
1) humus -> housefly -> spider-cross -> great tit -> hawk;
2) consumer of the third order - great tit.
113. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, correct them.
1. Annelids are the most highly organized animals of the cut of other types of worms. 2. Annelids have an open circulatory system. 3. The body of the annelids consists of identical segments. 4. There is no body cavity in annelids. 5. Nervous system annelids is represented by the peripharyngeal ring and the dorsal nerve chain.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1) 2 - Annelids have a closed circulatory system;
2) 4 - Annelids have a body cavity;
3-5 - the nerve chain is located on the ventral side of the body.
114. Name at least three aromorphoses in terrestrial plants that allowed them to be the first to master the land. Justify the answer.
Answer:
1) the emergence of integumentary tissue - the epidermis with stomata - contributing to protection against evaporation;
2) the appearance of a conducting system that ensures the transport of substances;
3) the development of a mechanical tissue that performs a supporting function.
115. Explain the reason for the great diversity of marsupials in Australia and their absence on other continents.
Answer:
1) Australia separated from other continents during the heyday of marsupials before the appearance of placental animals (geographical isolation);
2) the natural conditions of Australia contributed to the divergence of signs of marsupials and active speciation;
3) on other continents, marsupials were replaced by placental mammals.
116. In what cases does a change in the sequence of DNA nucleotides not affect the structure and functions of the corresponding protein?
Answer:
1) if, as a result of a nucleotide substitution, another codon appears that codes for the same amino acid;
2) if the codon formed as a result of a nucleotide substitution encodes a different amino acid, but with similar chemical properties, which does not change the structure of the protein;
3) if nucleotide changes occur in intergenic or non-functioning DNA regions.
117. Why is the relationship between pike and perch in the river ecosystem considered competitive?
Answer:
1) are predators, eat similar food;
2) live in the same reservoir, need similar conditions for life, mutually oppress each other.
118. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, correct them.
1. The main classes of the type of arthropods are Crustaceans, Arachnids and Insects. 2. Insects have four pairs of legs, and arachnids have three pairs. 3. The crayfish has simple eyes, and the cross-spider has complex eyes. 4. In arachnids, spider warts are located on the abdomen. 5. Spider-cross and Maybug breathe with the help of lung sacs and trachea.
Mistakes made in sentences:
1) 2 - insects have three pairs of legs, and arachnids - four pairs;
2) 3 - crayfish has compound eyes, and the cross-spider has simple eyes;
3-5 - the May beetle does not have lung sacs, but only tracheae.
119. What are the features of the structure and life of cap mushrooms? List at least four features.
Answer:
1) have a mycelium and a fruiting body;
2) reproduce by spores and mycelium;
3) according to the method of nutrition - heterotrophs;
4) most form mycorrhiza.
120. What aromorphoses allowed the ancient amphibians to master the land.
Answer:
1) the appearance of pulmonary respiration;
2) the formation of dissected limbs;
3) the appearance of a three-chambered heart and two circles of blood circulation.
Do you know that part C will give you almost half of the scores on the Unified State Examination in social studies? At the exam, you will count each score, therefore, no matter how difficult the written assignments are, they must be solved. Let's try to identify the main recommendations of the USE experts in part C?
But the most difficult thing at the USE 2016 will not be, but your struggle with emotions, insufficient time, and your own gaps in knowledge. Preparation for the exam is entering a decisive phase, do not forget to use ALL the possibilities for the most effective and accelerated preparation and repetition of the material.
Part C of the USE in social studies - structure
“It is better that it is more difficult,” said the great Aristotle. With regard to part C of the Unified State Examination in social studies, this is absolutely true. If each task of part A, and even part of the tasks of part B will only bring you to the exam, then in part C you can count on a grade from 2 to 5 right away!
So, half of your result on the exam depends on the completion of part C! Meanwhile, even the simplest of the tasks of part C - C1, C2, cause difficulties for graduates. But their meaning is a simple contextual search in a social science text. That is, you just need to correctly select the desired author's thought from the text.
Part C consists of 9 tasks, which are divided into 4 large blocks.
- C1-C4 - work with a social science text, search for information presented in an explicit and implicit form, your own commentary on the author's judgments based on knowledge of courses and social practice.
- C5, C8 - tasks of a theoretical nature, where it is practically not required to use examples from the surrounding reality, and the emphasis is on the ability to present the knowledge of a social science course in a structured way.
- C6-C7 - tasks for applying theoretical knowledge in practice, solving problems and giving examples.
We have already devoted our posts to tasks separately, and a separate section - writing an essay on social science, which subscribers of our group also use with pleasure.
The published FIPI "METHODOLOGICAL RECOMMENDATIONS FOR ASSESSING THE PERFORMANCE OF USE TASKS WITH A DETAILED ANSWER" for the analysis of essay C9 using the recommendations of the FIPI will be devoted to another separate post, and today we will discuss the remaining 8 tasks.
Analysis of part C of the Unified State Exam in social studies 2013
A few words about the methodology of working with social science text:
1. We read the entire text, highlight its main problem (what is it about?). In this case, it is ensuring the constitutional right of a citizen of the Russian Federation to judicial protection.
2. We work with text in KIM (task form). As a rule, C1 and C2 can be completely written out of the text, sometimes with a little revision. Like this, for example:
3. That is, without wasting time on rewriting the answer into a draft (remember that working with part C takes a lot of time), we prepare ready-made answers for ourselves to rewrite into a clean copy.
So, here are the answers of a graduate seriously preparing for the exam in social studies:
C1.1) Speech the text deals with the constitutional right to judicial protection.
2) The main condition for the realization of this right is the opportunity for every citizen to find out how, where and on what issue to apply. Ensuring information accessibility of the court.
Maximum per task 2 points.
C2.1) According to the author, the problem of the procedure for receiving complaints is a number of rules that objectively limit access to justice.
2) Restriction is the acceptance of complaints only in arbitrarily set days"reception of complaints".
3) Complaints can be filed only after personal consultation with the judge or only after verification of documents not provided for by law.
4) Only federal laws can impose a restriction of this kind.
And again, the maximum for the task - 2 points. However, there are some design considerations. The problem is identified, its two manifestations. But the last part of the question is not clearly marked. Better:
- The role of federal laws in solving the problem of the procedure for receiving complaints is that only they can impose a restriction of this kind.
Another remark. Each USE expert checks more than a dozen works. Naturally, the eye is “blurred”, so I recommend that you clearly write out the answer to the task, repeating its condition, especially if there are several questions for one task.
C3. To the conditions for unhindered visits to courts by persons with handicapped can be attributed:
1) Providing assistance in moving from home to the courts (special social services providing a vehicle (social service car with a driver or taxi))
2) Installation of convenient ramps at the entrance to court buildings
3) Convenient elevators and doorways inside court buildings
4) Sound equipment for the blind in courthouses, vehicles, pedestrian crossings.
5) Equipping the metro with comfortable ramps and elevators
6) Equipping land transport with convenient wheelchair access, sound equipment for the blind.C4. The information accessibility of the court and the openness of court sessions guarantees the observance of the rights of citizens as: 1) The verdict and the court decision are publicly announced. This provides an opportunity for popular discussion, media coverage, filing complaints, if necessary, by citizens, or other expression of dissatisfaction (assemblies, rallies).
2) The openness of the meeting guarantees the equality of all before the law and the court
3) Exclusion of the possibility of falsification and distortion of the court case during the trial.
4) Exclusion of prejudice on the part of the judge, prosecutor or lawyer towards the defendant, plaintiff or witnesses.
We note exhaustive brilliant answers. Understanding of the text, knowledge of the theory of law, understanding of social reality is shown. This, in contrast to tasks C1-C2 ( basic level), tasks of an increased level, each correctly completed task is estimated at 3 points.
For true C3 and C4 maximum 6 points. Total for the text С1-С4 maximum 10 points.
C5.Social progress is the process of development of society from the simpler to the more complex, from the lower to the higher.
1) Society is a dynamic self-developing system, which inevitably leads to social progress
2) The idea of social progress arose by analogy with the development of nature
3) Social progress is contradictory, since improvement in one area can lead to deterioration or complete extinction of another area. progress for one segment of the population may be negative for another.
4) The criteria for social progress are the development of science, technology, the complication of culture, law, education, medicine, etc.
We note right away that in this format this year, it is specified in terms of two complementary proposals. But there are very big doubts about this C5 answer, with the current (extremely specific) form of posing questions on complementary proposals, a maximum of 1 point for the correct definition would be received. Suggestions here did not count, since it would be unclear what is specified in general.
And yet, they ask you to make two sentences, and the answer is 4. It takes exactly 2!
And in part C on the exam, there are no abbreviations, especially etc. NOT ALLOWED!
Let's say 1 point for the task.
Here is the graduate's answer:
C6. Ways to fight unemployment:
1) Organization of public works (landscaping and landscaping of parks, squares, playgrounds)
2) Lending and subsidizing small businesses, so that people show their entrepreneurial abilities, create work for themselves and additional jobs. (issuance of loans by banks to open their own business at a lower interest rate)
3) Creation of schools and courses for the retraining of workers (creation of accounting courses, courses in scripting languages, etc.)
1. At the request of the local employment service, the department of housing and communal services of the town of M. allocated 2 additional places for the employment of unemployed citizens to work as a street gardener.
Here is what the FIPI methodological recommendations look like on this occasion:
Therefore, for this answer, the expert will give 0 points.
Graduate response:
C7. This social phenomenon is the socialization of the individual.
1) The primary socialization of the child is most influenced by parents (mother, father, grandmother, grandfather). On the secondary - school, university, teachers, professors.
2) The same influence on the socialization of the individual is exerted by people who are in authority with a particular person.
3) Example: The child remembers how family members communicate with each other and does by analogy with them.
The student accepts the opinion of a respected professor on a particular topic.
In general, the task itself contains the fact that you are obliged to know at a high level what an agent of socialization is, and what is an institution of socialization. These are subjects. In this answer, all the arguments are stacked “in a heap” ... To be honest, the experts would argue further in this situation, but you would receive at least 1 point for an example. Asking two subjects, write:
1. Parents.
6. Functions of the state
b) Protection of the territory of the state
c) Representation of the state in the international arena (political, economic)
etc.
In the variant, there really was a voluminous question for the plan. The logic of constructing the answer is correctly understood by the graduate, but there are some inaccuracies at the end.
Very embarrassing again etc. at the end of the plan. Moreover, at the beginning of this paragraph a) Economic and social problems … what is this? it's not a function. These are problems. It would be like a point was removed, since this item is in the task of the plan.
2 points for answer.
How to solve part C of the Unified State Examination in social studies?
Small results from the analyzed version. We checked it without an essay, we will immediately take this into account when calculating the points (- 5 points, this is the maximum for C9).
Out of the maximum possible, thus 22 points, 15 points were scored. That's enough. If you combine this with 17 points for part A and 11 points for part B, it turns out (that's almost 67 points). That is, the graduate applies for high level USE scores. I recommend that you continue this work in our group.
Write down the job number first (C1etc.), then the answer to it. For task C1, give a shortfree answer, and for tasks C2-C6 - full detailedanswer For answers to the tasks of this part (С1--С6), useanswer sheet number 2..
C1. The introduction of large doses of drugs into a vein is accompanied by their dilution with saline (0.9% N301 solution). Explain why.
The molecular structure of what monomer is shown in the diagram below?
What are the letters A, B, C?
3. Name the types of biopolymers that include this monomer.
SZ. Name at least 3 signs of adaptability of reptiles to reproduction in the terrestrial environment.
C4. How is the participation of functional groups of organisms in the cycle of substances in the biosphere manifested? Consider the role of each of them in the cycle of substances in the biosphere.
C5. The wasp fly is similar in color and body shape to a wasp. Name the type of its protective device, explain its significance and the relative nature of fitness.
Sat. A diheterozygous pea plant with smooth seeds and tendrils was crossed with a plant with wrinkled seeds without tendrils. It is known that both dominant genes (smooth seeds and the presence of antennae) are localized on the same chromosome; crossing over does not occur. Make a scheme for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of the parents, the phenotypes and genotypes of the offspring, the ratio of individuals with different genotypes and phenotypes. What law is manifested in this
Part 3
For answers to the tasks of this part (C1-C6), use the answer sheet No. 2. First write down the number of the task (C1, etc.), then the answer to it. For task C1, give a short free answer, and for tasks C2-C6-full detailed answer.
C1. The dog has developed a conditioned salivary reflex to a light signal. During the supply of a conditioned stimulus (lighting a light bulb), a sharp loud sound is heard, and the conditioned reflex (saliva) does not appear. What phenomenon is described and what is its mechanism?
C2. The house mouse is a mammal of the genus Mice. Initial range - North Africa, tropics and subtropics of Eurasia; followed by man spread everywhere. Under natural conditions, it feeds on seeds. Leads a nocturnal and twilight lifestyle. Usually 5 to 7 babies are born in a litter. What type criteria are described in the text? Explain the answer.
SZ. Why does plowing the soil improve the living conditions of cultivated plants?
C4. Explain why people of different races are classified as the same species.
C5. 30 tRNA molecules participated in the translation process. Determine the number of amino acids that make up the synthesized protein, as well as the number of triplets and nucleotides in the gene that codes for this protein.
Sat. Cat coat color genes are located on the X chromosome. The black color is determined by the Xb gene, the red color is determined by the Xb gene, heterozygotes are tortoiseshell. From a black cat and a red cat were born: one tortoiseshell and one black kitten. Make a scheme for solving the problem. Determine the genotypes of parents and offspring, the possible sex of the kittens.